Section 61 of Income tax act says any income earned from revocable transfer of asset made by the assessee to other person will be clubbed in assessee's hand.
My question is, as per above line then if even loan given by assessee to a person (say a business) and that other person earns income from such loan then, that income earned from such loan by the business should be clubbed in hands of the lender. Why is the wording like that? if the section is true then why do businesses who borrow pay tax and why their income earned from that loan be clubbed in income of lender and they be paying the tax? This is my query.
CAclubindia 