The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) conducted the Combined Defence Services (CDS) (I) Examination 2018 on 4 February 2018. The Exam consisted of three papers – General Knowledge, English and Elementary Mathematics. For the benefit CDS aspirants, we are providing the solution to the General Knowledge Question Paper (Series C).
1. Which one of the fnllowing statements about ‘Niryat Bandhu Scheme’ is correct?
(a) It is a scheme for mentoring first generation entrepreneurs.
(b) It is a scheme for crop protection.
(c) It is a scheme for the vulnerable section of the society.
(d) It is a scheme for monitoring rural poor.
Answer. (a) It is a scheme for mentoring first generation entrepreneurs.
2. Which one of the following statements about the Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) is not correct?
(a) It is a placement-linked skill training programme exclusively for rurual girls.
(b) It aims to convert India’s demographic surplus into a demographic dividend.
(c) The scheme aims to benefit more than 55 million poor rural folk.
(d) It is a generational poverty alleviation programme.
Answer. (d) It is a generational poverty alleviation programme.
3. Where is Hambantota Port located?
(a) Iran
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Japan
(d) Pakistan
Answer. (b) Sri Lanka
4. The projects under Coastal Berth Scheme of the flagship Sagarmala Programme are distributed over how many States?
(a) Eight
(b) Ten
(c) Twelve
(d) Fourteen
Answer.
5. Which one of the following statements about the National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change is not correct?
(a) The fund is meant to assist national and State level activities to meet the cost of adaptation measures.
(b) This scheme has been taken as a Central Sector Scheme.
(c) The Indian Council of Agricultural Research is the national implementing
(d) The scheme has been in force since 2015-2016.
Answer. (c) The Indian Council of Agricultural Research is the national implementing
6. ‘SAMPRITI-2017’ is a joint military exercise between armed forces of India and
(a) Bhutan
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Pakistan
(d) Myanmar
Answer. (b) Bangladesh
7. The judgement of the Supreme Court of India in the Vishakha Case pertains to
(a) sexual harassment in the work-place
(b) Sati
(c) dowry death
(d) rape
Answer. (a) sexual harassment in the work-place
8. The first BRICS Summit, after the inclusion of South Africa, was held at
(a) Brasilia
(b) Sanya
(c) Yekaterinburng
(d) Durban
Answer.
9. Who deciphered the Brahmi and Kharoshthi scripts?
(a) Piyadassi
(b) Colin Mackenzie
(c) Alexander Cunningham
(d) James Prinsep
Answer. (d) James Prinsep
10. Which of the following is/are the feature(s) of the Brahmadeya Grants during c 600-1200 AD?
1. Their creation meant a renunciation of actual or potential sources of revenue by the State.
2. These grants could vary from a small plot to several villages.
3. Most grants were made in unsettled areas
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer.
11. Who is the author of Manimekala?
(a) Kovalan
(b) Sathanar
(c) Hango Adigal
(d) Tirutakkatevar
Answer. (b) Sathanar
12. Which one of the following statements about the Elephanta Island is correct?
(a) It was given its name by the British after a large elephant structure located there.
(b) It contains one large cave.
(c) It is well-known for a spectacular carving of Vishnu described in the Vishnudharmattara Purana
(d) It is associated with the Pashupata sect.
Answer.
13. Which of the following statements about Sir Syed Ahmad Khan is/are correct?
1. He argued that India was federation of ethnic communities based on common descent.
2. His Philosophy was very similar to that of the Indian National Congress.
3. He imagined India as a Nation State based on individual citizen’s rights.
4. The cumclusum at the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College blended Muslim theology and European empiricism.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 4
Answer.
14. Consider the following statements about Impact of tax
1. A tax is shifted forward to Consume if the demand is inelastic relative to supply.
2. A tax is shifted backward to producers if the supply is relatively more inelastic than demand.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer.
15. According to the law of diminishing marginal utility, as the amount of a good consumed increases, the marginal utility or that good tends to
(a) improve
(b) diminish
(c) remain constant
(d) first diminish and then improve
Answer. (b) diminish
16. eBiz is one of the integrated services projects and part of the 31 Mission Mode Projetts (MMPs) under the National e-Governane Plan of the Government of India. eBiz is being implemented under the guidance and aegis of the Department of lnduntrial Policy and Promotion, Miniatry of Commerce and Industry by
(a) Tata Consultancy Services
(b) Infosys Technologies Limited
(c) Wipro
(d) HCL Technologies
Answer. (b) Infosys Technologies Limited
17. Which of the following statements about the olive ridley turtles is/are correct?
1. They are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world.
2. They live in warm waters of Pacific, Atlantic and Indian Oceans
3. The Coromandel Coast in India is the largest mass nesting site for the olive ridley turtles.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
Answer.
18. Consider the following statement:
“A sound body means one which bends itself to the spirit and is always a ready instrument at its service.”
The above statement is attributed to
(a) Sardar Patel
(b) Winston Churchill
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Baden-Powell
Answer.
19. Who among the following was the founder of Phoenix Settlement?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) B. R. Ambedkar
(c) Rabindranath Tagore
(d) Swami Vivekananda
Answer. (a) Mahatma Gandhi
20. Name the platform used for ritual purposes by the kings of the Vijayanagara Empire.
(a) Mahanavami Dibba
(b) Lotus Mahal
(c) Hazara Rama
(d) Virupaksha
Answer.
21. The idea of ‘Farr-I Izadi’, on which the Mughal Kingship was based, was first developed by which one of the following Sufi saints?
a) Shihabuddin Suhrawadi
b) Nizamuddin Auliya
c) Ibn al-Arabi
d) Bayazid Bistani
Answer.
22. Which Buddhist text contains an account of the Mauryan Emperor Ashoka?
a) Vinaya Pitaka
b) Sutta Pitaka
c) Abhidhama Pitaka
d) Mahavamsa
Answer.
23. Which one of the following statements about Buddhist Stupas in India is not correct?
a) Ashoka played an important role in popularizing the Stupa cult.
b) They were repositories of relics of Buddha and other monks.
c) They were located in rural areas.
d) They were located close to trade routes.
Answer. (b) They were repositories of relics of Buddha and other monks.
24. Which one among the following States of India has the largest number of seats in its Legislative Assembly?
a) West Bengal
b) Bihar
c) Madhya Pradesh
d) Tamil Nadu
Answer. (a) West Bengal
25. Which of the following statements about the Ordinance-making power of the Governor is/are correct?
1) It is a discretionary power.
2) The Governor himself is not competent to withdraw the Ordinance at any time.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer. (a) 1 only
26. Which one of the following events is not correctly matched with the year in which it happened?
a) Inauguration of the SWIFT system of electronic interbank fund transfer worldwide-1985
b) Conclusion of Uruguay Round of GATT-1994
c) Inauguration of the World Trade Organization-1995
d) Establishment of the first wholly electronic stock exchange (Nasdaq) – 1971
Answer. (a)
27. Consider the following statements about Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP):
1) ITBP was raised in 1962.
2) ITBP is basically a mountain raised force.
3) ITBP replaced Assam rifles in Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh in 2004-05 for border guarding duty.
4) ITBP presently has 52 service battalions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2,3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer.
28. Which one of the following is not an International Humans Rights Treaty?
a) International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
b) Convention on the Elimination of All forms of Discrimination against Women
c) Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilites
d) Declaration on the Right to Development
Answer. (d)
29. In the context of elections in India, which one of the following is the correct full form of VVPAT?
a) Voter Verifiable Poll Audit Trail
b) Voter Verifing Paper Audit Trail
c) Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail
d) Voter Verifiable Paper Account Trail
Answer. (c)
30. Which one of the following is not an objective of the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayi Yojana (PMKSY)?
a) To achieve convergence of investment in irrigation at the field level
b) To expand cultivable area under irrigation
c) To improve on-farm water use efficiency to reduce wastage of water
d) To protect farmers against crop failure due to natural calamities.
Answer. (d)
31. Which one of the following elements is used as a time keeper in atomic clocks?
a) Potassium
b) Cesium
c) Calcium
d) Magnesium
Answer. (b)
32. Which one of the following elements is involved in the water control of the blood?
(a) Potassium
(b) Lithium
(c) Rubidium
(d) Cesium
Answer.
33. Which one of the following gases dissolves in water to give the acidic solution?
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Oxygen
c) Nitrogen
d) Hydrogen
Answer.
34. Which one of the following elements is essential for the formation of chlorophyll in green plants?
a) Calcium
b) Iron
c) Magnesium
d) Potassium
Answer. (c)
35. Consider the following chemical reaction :
2aFe2O3(s) + bCO(g) → cFe(s) + 3CO2
In the balanced chemical equation of the above, which of the following will be the values of the coefficients a, b, c and d respectively?
(a) 3, 2, 3, 1
(b) 1, 3, 2, 3
(c) 2, 3, 3, 1
(d) 3, 3, 2, 1
Answer.
36. Why is argon gas used along with tungsten wire in an electric bulb?
(a) To increase the life of the bulb
(b) To reduce the consumption of electricity
(c) To make the emitted light colored
(d) To reduce the cost of the bulb
Answer. (a)
37. Which one of the following is the correct relation between the Kelvin temperature (T) and the Celsius temperature (tc)?
(a) There are two independent temperature scales
(b) T = tc
(c) T = tc – 273.15
(d) T = tc + 273.15
Answer.
38. Sound waves cannot travel through a
(a) Copper wire placed in air
(b) Silver slab placed in air
(c) Glass prism placed in water
(d) Wooden hollow pipe loaded in a vacuum
Answer.
39. Which one of the following is the value of one nanometer?
(a) 10-7 cm
(b) 10-6 cm
(c) 10-4 cm
(d) 10-3 cm
Answer.
40. Consider the following statements.
1) There is no net moment on a body which is in equilibrium
2) The momentum of a body is always conserved
3) The kinetic energy of an object is always conserved.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 only
Answer.
41. Working of safety fuses depends upon
1. magnetie effect of the current
2. chemical effect of the current
3. magnitude of the current
4. heating effect of the current
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 4 only
Answer.
42. Around twelfth century Sufi Silsilas began to crystallize in different parts of the Islamic world to signify
1. continuous link between the master and disciple
2. unbroken spiritual genealogy to the Prophet Muhammad
3. the transmission of spiritual power and blessings to devotees
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer.
43. In the 10th Mandala of the Rigveda, which one of the following hymns reflects upon the marriage ceremonies?
(a) Surya Sukta
(b) Purusha Sukta
(c) Dana Stutis
(d) Urna Sutra
Answer.
44. Which of the following statements about the Non-Cooperation Movement is/are Correct?
1. It was marked by significant participation of peasants from Karnataka.
2. It was marked by non-Brahmin lower Caste participation in Madras and Maharashtra
3. It was marked by the lack of labour unrest in Places like Assam, Bengal and Madras.
4. It was badly shaken by the Chauri Chaura incident in 1922 after which Gandhiji decided to continue with the movement on a much smaller scale.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 only
Answer.
45. Which one of the following was a focus country of the ‘World Food India’, a mega food event held in November 2017 in New Delhi?
(a) Germany
(b) Japan
(c) Denmark
(d) Italy
Answer.
46. Which one of the following States will host the Nobel Prize Series-India 2018 (Science Impacts Life) Exhibition?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Goa
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer.
47. The Ministry of Communication has recently launched a Pan India scholarship programme for school-children called ‘Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana’. The objective of the scheme is to increase the reach of
(a) sports
(b) philately
(c) music
(d) web designing
Answer.
48. Which one of the following temples of India has won the ‘UNESCO Asia Pacific Award of Merit, 2017’ for cultural heritage conservation?
(a) Kamakhya Temple, Guwahati
(b) Sri Ranganathaswami Temple, Srirangam
(c) Meenakshi Temple, Madurai
(d) Kedarnath Temple, Kedarnath
Answer.
49. Which One of the following teams was defeated by India to win the Wnmen’s Hockey Asia Cup title, 2017?
(a) Japan
(b) China
(c) South Korea
(d) Pakistan
Answer.
50. Which one of the following statements about India is not correct?
(a) India has 12 major ports and about 200 non-major ports.
(b) 95 Percent of India’s trade by volume and 68 Percent by value are moved through maritime transport.
(c) India has a coastline or about 7500 km.
(d) In the Maritime Agenda, 2010-2020, a target or 300 MT Port capacity has been set for the year 2020.
Answer.
51. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) India joined MTCR in 2016.
(b) India submitted a formal application for membership of the NSG in 2016.
(c) India proposed the Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism in 1996.
(d) The Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting (CHOGM) was held in 2016 at Malta.
Answer.
52. Which one of the following Amendments to the Constitution of India has prescribed that the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of total number for members of the House of the People or Legislative Assembly in the States?
(a) 91st Amendment
(b) 87th Amendment
(c) 97th Amendment
(d) 90th Amendment
Answer.
53. Which of the following about the role of Indian Coast Guard is/are correct?
1. Indian Coast Guard has been entrusted with the offshore security coordination authority
2. Lead intelligence agency for coastal and sea border
3. Coastal security in territorial waters
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 3 only
Answer.
54. Which one of the following is India’s first indigenously designed and developed long-range subsonic cruise missile which can be deployed from multiple platforms?
(a) Astra
(b) Akash
(c) Nirbhay
(d) Shankhnaad
Answer.
55. The Ministry of Power, Government of India has recently constituted a Committee to investigate the causes of the accident that occurred on 1st November, 2017 at Feroze Gandhi Thermal Power Plant Ltd., Unchahar, in Uttar Pradesh. Who among the following is the Chairman of the Committee?
(a) Dr. L. D. Papney
(b) Shri Dhawal Prakash Antapurkar
(c) Shri Subir Chakraborty
(d) Shri P. D. Siwal
Answer.
56. In November 2017, an Indian short film, The School Bag won the Best Short Film Award at the South Asian Film Festival held at Montreal. Who among the following is the Director of the film?
(a) Anurag Kashyap
(b) Dheeraj Jindal
(c) Sujoy Ghosh
(d) Samvida Nanda
Answer.
57. Which one of the following elements will be an isobar of calcium if the atomic number of calcium is 20 and its mass number is 40?
(a) Element with 20 protons and 18 neutrons
(b) Element with 18 protons and 19 neutrons
(c) Element with 20 protons and 19 neutrons
(d) Element with 18 protons and 22 neutrons
Answer.
58. Which of the following represents a relation for 'heat lost = heat gained?
(a) Principle of thermal equilibrium
(b) Principle of colors
(c) Principle of calorimetry
(d) Principle of vaporization
Answer.
59. Two metallic wires made from copper have same length but the radius of wire 1 is half of that of wire 2. The resistance of wire 1 is R. If both the wires are joined together in series, the total resistance becomes
(a) 2R
(b) R/2
(c) 5/4 R
(d) 3/4 R
Answer.
60. When the Sun is near the horizon during the morning or evening, it appears reddish. The phenomenon that is responsible for this observation is
(a) reflection of light
(b) refraction of light
(c) dispersion of light
(d) scattering of light
Answer.
CDS Exam Previous Year Question Papers (2014-2017) with Answers